| Question #2068 | |
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| Link to Question
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| Suppose that a standard bourdon tube pressure gauge has a scale of 0 to 1000 psig. If the accuracy of the gauge is plus or minus .5% of the span, what would the range of measured pressure be if the gauge indicates 690 psig? | |
| A) 640 to 740 psig | |
| B) 680 to 700 psig | |
| C) 685 to 695 psig | |
| D) 686.55 to 693.45 psig | |
| Posted: 03 Mar 2016 14:42 UTC | Post #1 |
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| NicMY Engine |
Member Total Posts: 4 |
| .5% = .005, so the Answer should be D) 636.55 to 693.45 Unless I read wrong? |
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| Posted: 03 Mar 2016 17:34 UTC | Post #2 |
| Shawn Deck & Engine |
Expired Member Total Posts: 195 |
| .005 * 1,000 = 5.. So +/- 5 from 690? That's my guess, but I'm not an engineer. |
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| Last edited: 03 Mar 2016 17:38 MST by Shawn | |
| Posted: 04 Mar 2016 12:49 UTC | Post #3 |
| NicMY Engine |
Member Total Posts: 4 |
| Ah, yes. I re-read the question (the problem was my reading comprehension. Not the problem.) Thanks, Shawn. | |
| Posted: 07 Mar 2016 22:22 UTC | Post #4 |
| rsfcg16 Engine |
Member Total Posts: 2 |
| Answer should be D) 686.55 to 693.45 as we are referring/basing to 690 PSIG and not the 1000 psig range of the gauge. correct me if am wrong. | |
| Posted: 08 Mar 2016 14:57 UTC | Post #5 |
| NicMY Engine |
Member Total Posts: 4 |
| It is actually C, because it is looking at the .5% from the span (1000 psig) | |
| Posted: 15 Jan 2021 17:21 UTC | Post #6 |
| dracopolis Engine |
Member Total Posts: 5 |
| Answer is 685 to 695, 0.5% = 0.005, 0.005 * 1000(total span) = 5, +/- 690 is 685-690 | |
| Posted: 18 Apr 2024 11:54 UTC | Post #7 |
| skellenger Deck & Engine |
Member Total Posts: 11 |
| says on the box or gauge + or - 5PSI or the % :), 690 is irrelevant here. not a trick question this applies to every gauge you read will have a + or - for the gauge not just the reading you want. | |
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